Wild game Lakers vs. Denver
Complete with a blown call on the final shot of the game. Here comes the NBA to say they got it wrong again. Will they ever get anything right?
about 2 years ago
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Uh, Fisher got blocked.
It was clean.
by Nick Van Excellent on Apr 9, 2010 7:26 AM PDT reply actions
I am just trying to draw a parellel to the OKC - Utah game
I have seen both plays called before and both plays as non-calls. Really I am just pointing out that it is a superstar league.
I don't get it.
Melo didn’t touch his wrist. Didn’t foul him at all. That should never, ever, ever be called a foul. Durrant WAS fouled on the last play, Fisher wasn’t.
by Nick Van Excellent on Apr 9, 2010 8:25 AM PDT up reply actions
This is the complete opposite of the OKC-Utah game
Durant was fouled, while on the other hand Fisher was blocked. The refs got this call right.
by billsfan4life on Apr 9, 2010 8:25 AM PDT up reply actions
I dunno...
seemed like both guys got a little piece of ball and hand. Wouldn’t be the first time I was wrong though.
Not even Laker fans think it was a foul.
It’s Derek Fisher. He has trouble scoring when there’s no one guarding him and he has four seconds to line up a wide-open jumper. When he has an actual, athletic defender on him, like, say, Carmelo Anthony? And he’s forced to create his own shot – I really can’t believe I’m typing this – off the dribble? At some point you cross the line from the sport of basketball into science fiction, or avant-garde surrealist theater.
Needless to say, Fisher’s shot did not pass through the net for a dramatic, game-winning finish. Carmelo blocked it. Of course he blocked it.-Silver Screen and Roll
by Nick Van Excellent on Apr 9, 2010 8:30 AM PDT up reply actions
I guess I don't know what a touch foul is.
Is the hand still part of the ball?
Sometimes.
The mere fact that contact occurs does not mean a foul has been committed. Players are allowed to contact other players when reaching for a loose ball, or when performing normal offensive and defensive movements. The hand is considered " part of the ball" when it is in contact with the ball and contact with a players hand when it is in contact with the ball is not a foul.
by Nick Van Excellent on Apr 9, 2010 8:36 AM PDT up reply actions
I guess I need a better view on the Durant one.
It looks like the defender touches his hand and ball as it leaves his hand. The rule as stated above does not describe this particular instance.
So is this statment correct?
You can hit the hand on the follow through if you first block the shot. But if you hist the hand on the follow through without having first blocked it is a foul. Seems like there is some ambiguity to the rule. Perhaps if it was better stated the officials would be able to get it right more often?
I'm sure there is a rule book out there
But I’m not going to look for it. I like the ambiguity. The way I see it the only time the “hand is part of the ball” is when a guy hits the the ball first and the motion of the follow through hits that hand.
What it really means is that in this case the hitting of the hand is after the loss of the control of the ball and incidental. it didn’t cause the loss of the ball or shot.
What it doesn’t mean is that you can hit the hand to block or steal the ball.
That is why when the player gets into the shooting motion but the ball doesn’t leave his hands, the defenders say " I got all ball" in order for it to become a jump ball and not a foul.
Durant got fouled because the defender hit his forearm first and then got all ball. It was the hitting of the forearm that changed the trajectory of the ball.
Fisher didn’t get get the call because it was all ball first and hes a jerkface.































